Paper II Biology
- During meiosis I, the bivalent chromosomes clearly appear as tetrads during:
(A) Diakinesis
(B) Diplotene
(C) Leptotene
(D) Zygotene
(E) Pachytene - Which of thses is wrongly matched?
(A) Chloroplasts – Chlorophyll
(B) Elaioplasts – Starch
(C) Chromoplasts – Carotenoids
(D) Amyloplasts – Carbohydrates
(E) Aleuroplasts – Proteins - Pick out the lectin from those given below:
(A) Gum
(B) Diterpene
(C) Curcumin
(D) Morphine
(E) Concanavalin A - Arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in order and choose the right option:
- The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the enzyme is free to bind to another substrate
- The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of the substrate
- The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the substrate
- The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme fitting into the active site
(B) III, II, I, IV
(C) IV, II, I, III
(D) II, I, IV, III
(E) III, IV, I, II - Find out the wrongly matched pair.
(A) Primary metabolite – Ribose
(B) Secondary metabolite – Anthocyanins
(C) Protein – Insulin
(D) Chitin – Polysaccharide
(E) Cellulose – Heteropolymer - Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given:
(A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4Column I Column II a Sulphur 1 Chlorophyl b Zinc 2 Nitrogenase c Magnesium 3 Methionine d Molybdenum 4 Auxin
(B) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2
(C) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2, d – 4
(D) a – 2, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3
(E) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1 - Necrosis, or death of tissue particularly leaf tissue, is due to the deficiency of:
(A) N, K, S
(B) N, K, Mg and Fe
(C) Mn, Zn and Mo
(D) Ca, Mg, Cu and K
(E) N, K, Mg, Fe, Mn, Zn and Mo - Which of the following is a 4-carbon compound?
(A) Oxaloacetic acid
(B) Phosphoglyceric acid
(C) Ribulose bis phosphate
(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate
(E) Citric acid - Attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces is known as:
(A) Cohesion
(B) Capillarity
(C) Surface Tension
(D) Tensile strength
(E) Adhesion - Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise to:
(A) 3 ATP molecules
(B) 12 ATP molecules
(C) 2 ATP molecules
(D) 1 ATP molecule
(E) 8 ATP molecules
- Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(A) Sorghum – Kranz anatomy
(B) PEP Carboxylase – Mesophyll cells
(C) Blackman – Law of limiting factors
(D) Photorespiration – C3 plants
(E) PSII – P700 - Which of the following is not a purpose of transpiration?
(A) Supplies water for photosynthesis
(B) Helps in translocation of sugars from source to sink
(C) Maintains shape and structure of the plants
(D) Cools leaf surfaces
(E) Transports minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant - The minerals involved in water-splitting reaction during photosynthesis are:
(A) Magnesium and Chlorine
(B) Pottassium and Manganese
(C) Manganese and Chlorine
(D) Molybdenum and Manganese
(E) Copper and Chlorine - Which of the following is a bacterium involved in denitrification?
(A) Nitrococcus
(B) Nitrosomonas
(C) Psedomonas
(D) Nitrobacter
(E) Azotobacter - Which of the following statements regarding C4 plants is false?
(A) The primary CO2 acceptor is a 5 carbon molecule
(B) The initial carboxylationreaction occurs in mesophyll
(C) The leaves that fix CO2 have two cell types
(D) The mesophyll cells lack RuBusCO enzyme
(E) The Calvin pathway does not take place in the mesophyll cells but does so only
in the bundle sheath cells - When tripalmitin is used as a substarte in respiration, the R.Q. is:
(A) >1
(B) 1.0
(C) 0.9
(D) ∞
(E) 0.7 - Find out the wrongly mtched pair:
(A) Tuber – Potato
(B) Rhizome – Ginger
(C) Bulbil – Agave
(D) Leaf buds – Banana
(E) Offset – Water hyacinth - Which of the following is pollinated by water?
(A) Viola
(B) Yucca
(C) Oxalis
(D) Commelina
(E) Zostera - Match the items in Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:
(A) a – 1; b – 4; c – 5; d – 3; e – 2Column I Column II a) Binary fission 1) Algae b) Zoospore 2) Amoeba c) Conidium 3) Hydra d) Budding 4) Penicillium e) Gemmules 5) Sponge
(B) a – 2; b – 1; c – 4; d – 3; e – 5
(C) a – 2; b – 4; c – 3; d – 5; e – 1
(D) a – 1; b – 4; c – 3; d – 2; e – 5
(E) a – 4; b – 1; c – 3; d – 5; e – 2 - Which of the following statements about sporopollenin is false?
(A) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(B) sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic materials
(C) Exine has apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is present
(D) sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids
(E) No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin is so far known
In the diagram given above, parts labelled as 'a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e', and 'f' are respectively identified as:
(A) Synergids, Polar nuclei, Central cell, Antipodals, Filiform apparatus and Egg
(B) Polar nuclei, Egg, Antipodals, Central cell, Filiform apparatus and Synergids
(C) Egg, Synergids, Central cell, Filiform apparatus, Antipodals and Polar nuclei
(D) Central cell, Polar nuclei, Filiform apparatus, Antipodals, Synergids, and Egg
(E) Filiform apparatus, Polar nuclei, Egg, Antipodals, Synergids and Central cell- The formula of growth rate for population in a given time is:
(A) dt / dN = rN
(B) dt / rN = dN
(C) rN / dN = dt
(D) dN / rN = dt
(E) dN / dt - rN - Many fresh water animals cannot live for long in sea water and vice versa mainly because of the:
(A) Change in N levels
(B) Change in the levels of thermal tolerance
(C) Variations in light intensity
(D) Osmotic problems
(E) Spectral quality of solar radiation - Some of the nutrient cycles are labelled as below:
Sulphur cycle (a), phosphorous cycle (b), carbon cycle (c), and nitrogen cycle (d). Of these, the sedimentary cycle is represented by:
(A) (a) only
(B) (b) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (a) and (b) only
(E) (c) and (d) only - The species diversity of plants on earth will be
(A) 2.4 %
(B) 22 %
(C) 8.1 %
(D) 85 %
(E) 70 % - One green house gas contributes 14% to total global warming and another contributes 6%. These are respectively identified as:
(A) N2O and CO2
(B) CFCs and N2O
(C) Methane and CO2
(D) Methane and CFCs
(E) CFCs and CO2 - Which of the following is false?
(A) Quantity of biomass in a trophic level at a particular period is called as standing crop.
(B) The energy content in a trophic level is determined by considering a few individuals of a species in that trophic level.
(C) The succession that occurs in newly cooled lava is called primary succession.
(D) Rate of succession is faster in secondary succession.
(E) Phytoplanktons are the pioneers in the aquatic ecosystem - Which of the following statements regarding decomposition is false?
(A) Warm and moist environment favours decomposition
(B) Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in chitin and lignin
(C) Earthworm is a detritivore
(D) Precipitation of soluble inorganic nutrients into the soil horizon as unavailable salts is called mineralisation
(E) Detritus is the raw material for decomposition - Increase in concentration of a toxicant at successive trophic levels is called:
(A) Eutrophication
(B) Accelerated eutrophication
(C) Biomagnification
(D) Cultural eutrophication
(E) Algal bloom - Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example for:
(A) Mutualism
(B) Commensalism
(C) Parasitism
(D) Amensalism
(E) Predation
- The thickness of azone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is measured in terms of:
(A) Decibel units
(B) Pascal units
(C) Svedberg units
(D) Dobson units
(E) Angstrom units - Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produce toxins that control:
(A) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
(B) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
(C) Tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively
(D) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
(E) Corn borer and tobacco budworms respectively - The vector for T-DNA is:
(A) Thermus aquaticus
(B) Salmonella typhimurium
(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(D) Escherichia coli
(E) Bacillus thuringiensis - Which of the following is a plasmid?
(A) pBR 322
(B) BamH I
(C) Sal I
(D) EcoR I
(E) Hind III - Which of the following statements regarding universal rules of nomenclature is wrong?
(A) The first word in biological name represents the genus
(B) The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter
(C) Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined
(D) Biological names are generally in Greek and written in italics
(E) The second component in a biological name denotes the specific epithet - Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given:
Column I (Common name) Column II (Taxonomic category - Order) a Wheat 1 Primata b Mango 2 Diptera c Housefly 3 Sapindales d Man 4 Poales
(A) a – 1, b – 2, c – 4, d – 3
(B) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1
(C) a – 2, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3
(D) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
(E) a – 4, b – 2, c – 3, d – 1 - Which of the following is not a character of Protista?
(A) Protists are prokaryotic
(B) Some Protists have cell walls
(C) Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and heterotrophic
(D) Body organisation is cellular
(E) Membrane bound organelles are present in cells - Specialized cells called heterocysts are present in:
(A) Dinoflagellates
(B) Chrysophytes
(C) Euglenoids
(D) Cyanobacteria
(E) Archaebacteria - Which of the following is a flagellated protozoan?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Plasmodium
(D) Trypanosoma
(E) Paramoecium - Systema Naturae was written by:
(A) Ernst Mayr
(B) Carolus Linnaeus
(C) R.H. Whittaker
(D) W.M. Stanley
(E) M.W. Beijernick
- Match Column I with Column II and choose the right option:
I II
a. Rhizopus 1. Ascomycetes
b. Penicillium 2. Basidiomycetes
c. Ustilago 3. Deuteromycetes
d. Alternaria 4. Phycomycetes
(A) a – 4, b – 3, c – 1, d – 2
(B) a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1
(C) a – 4, b – 1, c – 2, d – 3
(D) a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 1
(E) a – 2, b – 1, c – 4, d – 3 -
In the diagram given above, some of the algae have been labelled as 'a', 'b', 'c', 'd', and 'e'. These algae are respectively identified as:
(A) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Fucus and Laminaria
(B) Porphyra, Dictyota, Laminaria, Fucus and Polysiphonia
(C) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Laminaria, and Fucus
(D) Fucus, Porphyra, Dictyota, Polysiphonia, and Laminaria
(E) Laminaria, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Dictyota, and Fucus - Identify the alga which exhibits diplontic life cycle:
(A) Spirogyra
(B) Chlamydomonas
(C) Fucus
(D) Volvox
(E) Ectocarpus - Which of the following pteridophyte is heterosporous in nature?
(A) Psilotum
(B) Adiantum
(C) Equisetum
(D) Salvinia
(E) Lycopodium - Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(A) Indigofera – Dye
(B) Sesbania – Fodder
(C) Petunia – Fumigatory
(D) Aloe – Medicine
(E) Asparagus – Vegetable - Which one of the following floral formula represents the mustard plant?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) - Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct option.
- In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence
- The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium
- The gymnosperms are heterosporous
(B) (a) and (c) are true but (b) is false
(C) (b) and (c) are false but (a) is true
(D) (a) and (c) are false but (b) is true
(E) (b) and (c) are true but (a) is false - Whorled type of phyllotaxy is found in:
(A) Mustard
(B) China rose
(C) Guava
(D) Calotropis
(E) Alstonia - Which of the following is not a part of epidermal tissue system?
(A) Companion cells
(B) Trichomes
(C) Root hairs
(D) Guard cells
(E) Subsidiary cells - Which of the following statements is true?
(A) The collenchyma occurs in layers below the epidermis in monocotyledonous plants
(B) Sclerenchyma cells are usually dead and without protoplasts
(C) Xylem parenchyma cells are living and thin walled and their cell walls are made up of lignin
(D) The companion cells are specialized sclerenchymatous cells
(E) Phloem fibres are generally present in the primary phloem
- Which of these is an example for zygomorphic flower with imbricate aestivation?
(A) Calotropis
(B) Mustard
(C) Canna
(D) Cassia
(E) Cucumber
In the diagram of types of placentation given above 'a', 'b,, 'c', and 'd' respectively represent:
(A) Basal, Axile, Parietal, and Free central
(B) Free central, Parietal, Basal and Axile
(C) Axile, Basal, Parietal and Free central
(D) Parietal, Axile, Free central, and Basal
(E) Axile, Free central, Basal, and Parietal- Consider the following statements.
- In racemose inflorescence the flowers are borne in a basipetal order
- Epigynous flowers are seen in rose plant
- In brinjal the ovary is superior
(B) (a) and (c) are true but (b) is false
(C) (a) and (b) are false but (c) is true
(D) (a) and (c) are false but (b) is true
(E) (b) and (c) are true but (a) is false - Pick out the wrong statement:
(A) Double fertilization is unique to gymnosperms and monocotyledons
(B) Sequoia, a gymnosperm, is one of the tallest trees
(C) Phaeophyceae members possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls
(D) Moss is a gametophyte which consists of two stages namely, protonema stage and leafy stage
(E) Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess xylem and phloem - The monocotyledonous seed consists of one large and shield shaped cotyledon known as:
(A) Aleurone layer
(B) Scutellum
(C) Coleoptile
(D) Hilum
(E) Coleorhiza - In woody trees, the exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere and the internal tissue of the stem takes place through:
(A) Aerenchyma
(B) Stomata
(C) Pneumatophores
(D) Lenticels
(E) Trichomes - Consider the following statements.
- Plant cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all animal cells
- Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis
- The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium carbonate which holds the different neighbouring cells together
- In animal cells steroidal hormones are synthesized by smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(A) (a) and (b) only are correct
(B) (c) and (d) only are correct
(C) (b) and (d) only are correct
(D) (a) and (d) only are correct
(E) (b) and (c) only are correct - Which one of the following organelles is not surrounded by any membrane?
(A) Mitochondrion
(B) Vacuole
(C) Chloroplast
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
(E) Ribosome - The name chromatin was coined by:
(A) Flemming
(B) Robert Brown
(C) George Palade
(D) Camillo Golgi
(E) Rudolf Virchow - The infoldings in mitochondria are known as:
(A) Cristae
(B) Matrix
(C) Cistermae
(D) Thylakoids
(E) Grana
- Pick the correct statement
(A) The concentration of internal intercoastal muscles lifts up the ribs and sternum
(B) The RBCs transports oxygen only
(C) The thoracic cavity is anatomically an air tight chamber
(D) Healthy man can inspire approximately 500 ml of air per minute
(E) During expiration, the interpulmonary pressure is slightly below the surrounding atmospheric pressure - The Sphincter of Oddi found in man, guards the:
(A) Pancreatic duct
(B) Hepatopancreatic duct
(C) Bile Duct
(D) Cystic duct
(E) Duodenum - The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air is:
(A) 45 mm of Hg
(B) 95 mm of Hg
(C) 104 mm of Hg
(D) 110 mm of Hg
(E) 125 mm of Hg - Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option
I II
a. Rhizopus 1. Ascomycetes
b. Penicillium 2. Basidiomycetes
c. Ustilago 3. Deuteromycetes
d. Alternaria 4. Phycomycetes
(A) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
(B) i – c, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b
(C) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
(D) i – d, ii – a, iii – b, iv – c
(E) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c - In the following diagram showing axon terminal and synapse a, b, c, d and e respectively represents:
(A) axon terminal, synaptic cleft, synaptic vesicles, neurotransmitters and receptors
(B) axon terminal, synaptic vesicles, synaptic cleft, receptors and neurotransmitters
(C) synaptic cleft, synaptic vesicles, axon terminal, neurotransmitters and receptors
(D) synaptic cleft, axon terminal, synaptic vesicles, neurotransmitters and receptors
(E) synaptic vesicles, axon terminal, synaptic cleft, receptors and neurotransmitters - The main mineralocorticoid in human is:
(A) Aldosterone
(B) Cortisol
(C) Testosterone
(D) Progesterone
(E) Adrenaline - Chorda tendinae are found in:
(A) Atria of heart
(B) Ventricles of heart
(C) Joints of legs
(D) Joints of hands
(E) Ventricles of brain - The average quantity of urea excreted in urine by man per day is:
(A) 1–5 gm
(B) 25–30 gm
(C) 1–1.5 litres
(D) 80 gm
(E) 100-500 mg - The number of occipital condyles in man is/are:
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
(E) five - The complex system of the inner ear associated with maintenance of body balance is:
(A) cochlea
(B) Reissner's membrane
(C) vestibular apparatus
(D) basilar membrane
(E) oval window
- Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle, mostly due to genetic disorder occurs in:
(A) Myasthenia gravis
(B) Muscular dystrophy
(C) Tetany
(D) Osteoporosis
(E) Arthritis - Epinephrine, on basis of its chemical nature, is a/an:
(A) Peptide hormone
(B) Steroid
(C) Iodothyronine
(D) Glucocorticcoid
(E) Amino acid derivative - Match the following and choose the correct option:
Types of Synovil Joints Bones Involved
a. Ball and Socket 1. Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
b. Hinge 2. Atlas and axis
c. Pivot 3. Frontal and parietal
d. Saddle 4. Knee
5. Humerus and pectoral girdle
(A) a – 5, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
(B) a – 1, b – 3, c – 4, d – 5
(C) a – 5, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1
(D) a – 1, b – 2, c – 5, d – 4
(E) a – 2, b – 5, c – 4, d – 1 - The respiratory rhythm centre is present in the:
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Corpora quadrigemina
(E) Medulla oblongata - The hormone which regulates sleep – wake cycle in man is:
(A) Oxytocin
(B) Vasopressin
(C) Thyroxine
(D) Melatonin
(E) Thyrocalcitonin - Read the statements regarding muscle proteins.
- Actin is a thin filament and is made up of two F-actins
- The complex protein, tropomyosin is distributed at regular intervals on the troponin
- Myosin is a thick filament which is also a polymerized protein
- The globular head of meromyosin consists of light meromyosin (LMM)
(B) i, ii and iv are correct
(C) i and iii are correct
(D) ii and iv are correct
(E) ii, iii and iv are correct - The innermost layer of the human eye is:
(A) choroid
(B) cornea
(C) sclera
(D) retina
(E) lens - Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by:
(A) Chorion
(B) Amnion
(C) Corpus luteum
(D) Placenta
(E) Ovaries - In human, the unpaired male reproductive structure is:
(A) seminal vesicle
(B) prostate
(C) bulbourethral gland
(D) testes
(E) vas deferens - The process of delivery of the foetus is called:
(A) Parturition
(B) Implantation
(C) Fertilisation
(D) Lactation
(E) Ovulation
- Identify the wrongly matched pair:
(A) Typhoid – Widal test
(B) Plague – Viral disease
(C) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum
(D) Common cold – Rhinovirus
(E) Trychophyton – Ringworm - The alien species introduced into Lake Victoria that was responsible for the extinction of cichlid fishes is:
(A) African catfish
(B) Water hyacinth
(C) Carrot grass
(D) Nile perch
(E) Murrels - Match the microbes in Column I with their commercial / industrial products in Column II and choose the correct answer:
Column I Column II
i. Aspergillus niger a. Ethanol
ii. Clostridium butylicum b. statins
iii. Saccharomyces cerevisiae c. citric acid
iv. Trichoderma polysporum d. butyric acid
v. Monascus purpureus e. cyclosporin A - In the immune system, interferons are a part of:
(A) Physiological barriers
(B) Cellular barriers
(C) Physical barriers
(D) Cytokine barriers
(E) Macrophages - The immunoglobulin abundant in colostrum is:
(A) Ig G
(B) Ig M
(C) Ig D
(D) Ig E
(E) Ig A - Which of the following is an opioid drug?
(A) Heroin
(B) Cocaine
(C) Marijuana
(D) Hashish
(E) Charas - In the early earth, water and CO2 were produced by the combination of O2 with:
(A) Ammonia and methane
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Organic matter
(D) Sulphates and nitrates
(E) Hydrogen sulphide - The primate which existed 15 mya among these was:
(A) Homo habilis
(B) Australopithecines
(C) Ramapithecus
(D) Homo erectus
(E) Neanderthal man - Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called:
(A) Founder effect
(B) Saltation
(C) Branching descent
(D) Natural selection
(E) Adaptive radiation - One of the following is not a characteristic feature of sponges:
(A) Cellular level of organization
(B) Presence of ostia
(C) Intercellular digestion
(D) Body supported by chitin
(E) Indirect development
(A) i – d, ii – e, iii – b, iv – a, v – c
(B) i – e, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b, v – c
(C) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – e, v – b
(D) i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – a, v – b
(E) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – e, v – a
- Match the following and select the correct answer:
i. Choanocyctes a. Platyhlminthes
ii. Cnidoblasts b. Ctenophora
iii. Flame cells c. Porifera
iv. Nephridia d. Coelenterata
v. Comb plates e. Annelida - The pseudocoelomate among these is:
(A) Porifera
(B) Annelida
(C) Aschelminthes
(D) Mollusca
(E) Platyhelminthes - The limbless amphibian is:
(A) Ichthyophis
(B) Hyla
(C) Rana
(D) Salamandra
(E) Bufo - Which one of the following is not a mammalian character?
(A) Presence of milk producing glands
(B) They have two pairs of limbs
(C) Skin is unique in possessing hair
(D) Presence of external ears called pinnae
(E) Homodont type of dentition - The flightless bird among the following is:
(A) Columba
(B) Neophron
(C) Struthio
(D) Corvus
(E) Pavo - Which one of the following animals possesses high regeneration capacity?
(A) Planaria
(B) Taenia
(C) Salpa
(D) Periplaneta
(E) Ascidian - Identify the aquatic mammal(s) from the following:
i) Balaenoptera ii) Equus iii) Delphinus iv) Pteropus v) Felis
(A) i and iii only
(B) ii and iv only
(C) v only
(D) iv and v only
(E) ii and v only - Fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells are present in:
(A) cartilage tissue
(B) adipose tissue
(C) areolar tissue
(D) glandular epithelium
(E) compund epithelium - Spermathecae in Pheretima is located in the segments:
(A) 14 to 18
(B) 10 to 13
(C) 6 to 10
(D) 6 to 9
(E) 17 to 19 - The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross is called:
(A) pedigree analysis
(B) karyotype
(C) Punnett square
(D) chromosome map
(E) genotype ratio
(A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – e, v – c
(B) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – e, v – c
(C) i – e, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b, v – d
(D) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – e, v – b
(E) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – e, v – b
- In the Lac Operon system, β–glactosidase is coded by:
(A) a–gene
(B) i–gene
(C) l–gene
(D) y–gene
(E) z–gene - Inheritance of flower colour is an example of incomplete dominance, which is seen in:
(A) Antirrhinum
(B) Pisum
(C) Solanum
(D) Hibiscus
(E) Bamboo - Match the codons with their respective amino acids and choose the correct answer:
i. UUU a. Serine
ii. GGG b. Methionine
iii. UCU c. Phenylalanine
iv. CCC d. Glycine
v. AUG e. Proline - Identify the wrong statement:
(A) In male grasshopers 50% of the sperms have no sex chromosome
(B) Usually female birds produce two types of gametes based on sex chromosomes
(C) The human males have one of their sex chromosomes much shorter than the other
(D) The male fruit fly is heterogametic
(E) In domesticated fowls the sex of the progeny depends on the type of sperm that fertilizes the egg - The ABO blood grouping in human beings is an example for:
i) Dominance ii) Incomplete dominance iii) Co-dominance iv) Multiple alleles
(A) i and ii only
(B) ii, iii and iv
(C) i, iii and iv
(D) iii and ii only
(E) iv and ii only - Which of the following genotype does not produce any sugar polymer on the surface of the RBC?
(A) IA IA
(B) Ibi
(C) IA IB
(D) i i
(E) IB IB - Gynaecomastia is a common feature seen in:
(A) Down's syndrome
(B) Turner's syndrome
(C) PKU
(D) Cystic fibrosis
(E) Klinefelter's syndrome - In bacteria, the formation of peptide bond during translation is effected by:
(A) Lysozyme
(B) Ribozyme
(C) Nucleosome
(D) Microsome
(E) Peroxisome - Haemophilia in man is due to:
(A) sex–linked inheritance
(B) sex–limited inheritance
(C) sex–influenced inheritance
(D) primary non–disjunction
(E) secondary non–disjunction - Locations or sites in the human DNA where single base DNA differences occurs are called:
(A) Repetitive DNA
(B) VNTR
(C) SNP
(D) SSCP
(E) Expressed sequence tags
(A) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – e, v – b
(B) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – e, v – b
(C) i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – a, v – b
(D) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – e, v – c
(E) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c, v – e
- Which of the following is not a Mendelian disorder?
(A) Haemophilia
(B) Cystic fibrosis
(C) Colour blindness
(D) Thalesemia
(E) Turner's syndrome - The technique of DNA finger printing was initially developed by:
(A) Ian Wilmut
(B) Hargobind Khorana
(C) Jacque Monod
(D) Alec Jeffreys
(E) Francois Jacob - Histones are rich in:
(A) Alanine and glycine
(B) Lysine and arginine
(C) Histidine
(D) Cysteine and tyrosine
(E) Serine - The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as:
(A) Translation
(B) Transmination
(C) Replication
(D) Transcription
(E) Deamination - Consider the following statements:
- r–RNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins
- t–RNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code
- RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription
- A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called intron
(B) I and II are correct
(C) I, II and III are correct
(D) II and III are correct
(E) I, II and IV are correct - During Messelson and Stahl's experiments, heavy DNA was distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation in:
(A) CsOH gradient
(B) 14NH4Cl
(C) 15NH4Cl
(D) 35SO2
(E) CsCl gradient - The process of removal of introns and joining of exons is called:
(A) Capping
(B) Tailing
(C) Termination
(D) Initiation
(E) Splicing - Human dental formula is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) - The gastric juice contains:
(A) trypsin, pepsin, lipase
(B) pepsin, lipase, rennin
(C) pepsin, amylase, trypsin
(D) trypsin, pepsin, rennin
(E) pepsin, rennin, carboxypeptidase - Find out the wrong match:
(A) Eosinophils – allergic response
(B) Basophils – secrete histamine and serotonin
(C) Neutrophils – phagocytic and destroy foreign organisms
(D) Lymphocytes – immune responses
(E) Monocytes – secrete heparin
